UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | July 06 to July 12, 2025 | UPSC Current Affairs News – Exam Ki Tayari

QUESTION 1

With reference to the Kuno National Park, consider the following statements:

1. It lies in the Satpura Hills in Central India.

2. More than 30 species of bamboo and grasses are found in Kuno National Park.

3. The population of Cheetahs in Kuno National Park has increased drastically, and the total number is now more than 100.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— An eight-year-old Namibian female cheetah named Nabha died at Kuno National Park, a week after sustaining severe injuries likely during a hunting attempt inside its soft release enclosure.

About Kuno National Park

— Kuno National Park is located in the Vindhyan Hills of Central India. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— It has a great biodiversity, with 123 tree species, 71 shrub species, 32 climber and exotic species, 34 bamboo and grass species, 33 mammals, 206 bird species, 14 fish species, 33 reptile species, and 10 amphibian species. With so many floral and faunal species, it is one of the most biodiverse places in Central India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— It is popularly thought that the Kardhai tree, which grows abundantly here, turns green even when there is only a slight amount of dampness in the air, before the first monsoon showers arrive.

— Currently, 16 cheetahs are living in the wild at Kuno and have adapted well to their new habitat. They have learned to coexist with co-predators and are regularly hunting. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: http://www.kunonationalpark.org)

QUESTION 2

Which of the forts are part of ‘Maratha Military Landscapes’?

1. Salher Fort

2. Shivneri Fort

3. Chitradurga Fort

4. Bellary Fort

5. Lohgad Fort

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5

(d) 1, 2 and 5

Explanation

— Prime Minister Narendra Modi praised the inclusion of the ‘Maratha Military Landscapes’, which include 12 forts built by Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj, on the UNESCO World Heritage List.

— The Maratha Military Landscapes include 12 forts of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj, including Salher, Shivneri, Lohgad, Khanderi, Raigad, Rajgad, Pratapgad, Suvarnadurg, Panhala, Vijay Durg, and Sindhudurg in Maharashtra, as well as Gingee Fort in Tamil Nadu.

— The decision to include them was made at the 47th World Heritage Committee (WHC) meeting in Paris. This is India’s 44th property to obtain such status.

— Chitradurga Fort and Bellary Fort are located in Karnataka.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

With reference to the Astra BVR missile, consider the following statements:

1. ASTRA is a Beyond Visual Range (BVR) class of Air-to-Air Missile (AAM) system.

2. The missile has all-weather day and night capability.

3. The missile has a range of 50 km.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— India successfully test fired Astra beyond visual air-to-air missile from Su-30 Mk-I aircraft off the coast of Odisha, demonstrating its indigenous defence capabilities. The missile has a range exceeding 100 km and is equipped with state-of-the art guidance and navigation system, officials said. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

About ASTRA Missile

— ASTRA is a Beyond Visual Range (BVR) class Air-to-Air Missile (AAM) system that is intended to be placed on fighter aircraft. The missile was designed to engage and destroy highly manoeuvrable supersonic aircraft. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The missile is capable of operating in any conditions, day or night. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The missile is being developed in several variations to satisfy specific requirements. The ASTRA Mk-I Weapon System, which is integrated with the SU-30 Mk-I aircraft, is being introduced into the Indian Air Force.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: http://www.drdo.gov.in)

QUESTION 4

Lerma Rojo 64A, Sonora 63, and Mayo 64 are associated with:

(a) Asteroids

(b) Alternative to the coolant used in a nuclear reactor

(c) Dry winds in North America

(d) Wheat varieties

Explanation

— Six decades ago, the famed agricultural scientist Norman Borlaug launched India’s Green Revolution with his high-yielding, semi-dwarf wheat types Lerma Rojo 64A, Sonora 63, Sonora 64, and Mayo 64.

— Today, his organisation, the Mexico-based International Maize and Wheat Improvement Centre, or CIMMYT, is contacting the Indian government and the private sector to seek financial support for its breeding research and development program in the two cereals that account for more than a quarter of the world’s cropped area.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

Consider the following statements about ‘Daulat Beg Oldie’:

1. It is the country’s northernmost military outpost.

2. It is near the Line of Control.

3. There is no airstrip at Daulat Beg Oldie.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— From infrastructure for a forward aviation base, facilities for missiles and vital road linkages along the Line of Actual Control, the standing committee of the National Board for Wildlife (SC-NBWL) has approved proposals for critical Defence projects along the boundary with China, stretching from eastern Ladakh to Sikkim to Arunachal Pradesh.

— One of the most significant projects approved was a 10.26-km road link between Daulat Beg Oldie (DBO) to the Border Personnel Meeting (BPM) Hut where senior Indian and Chinese Army officers meet to discuss border issues.

— At a height of 17,000 feet, DBO is the country’s northernmost military outpost where the highest airstrip is also located. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 3 is not correct.

— DBO is near the Line of Actual Control (LAC). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

With reference to the Zonal Councils, consider the following statements:

1. The notion of creating Zonal Councils was proposed in 1956 during the debate on the report of the States Reorganisation Commission.

2. The Central Zonal Council comprises Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh only.

3. At present, there are six Zonal Councils.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— Union Home Minister Amit Shah said zonal councils have transformed from being mere discussion forums into “engines of cooperation”, noting that 83% of issues taken up in their meetings have been resolved.

About Zonal Councils

— Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister, proposed the formation of Zonal Councils in 1956 during a debate on the report of the States Re-organisation Commission. He suggested that the States proposed to be reorganised be divided into four or five zones, each with its own Advisory Council, “to develop the habit of cooperative working” among these states. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Part III of the 1956 States Reorganisation Act established five Zonal Councils. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

i. The Northern Zonal Council, which includes the states of Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan, the National Capital Territory of Delhi, and the Union Territory of Chandigarh;

ii. The Central Zonal Council, which includes the states of Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

iii. The Eastern Zonal Council, which includes the states of Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, and West Bengal.

iv. The Western Zonal Council, which includes the States of Goa, Gujarat, Maharashtra, and the Union Territories of Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli;

v. The Southern Zonal Council, which includes the States of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and the Union Territory of Puducherry.

— The North Eastern Council, established under the North Eastern Council Act of 1972, includes the following states: Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Tripura, Mizoram, Meghalaya, Nagaland, and Sikkim.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: http://www.mha.gov.in)

QUESTION 7

With reference to the mountain passes, consider the following pairs:

1. Nathu La pass – Arunachal Pradesh

2. Lipulekh pass – Sikkim

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly marked?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— After a five-year break caused by the Covid-19 pandemic and extended because to tensions between India and China, the Kailash-Mansarovar yatra will resume in 2025.

— This year, the Ministry of External Affairs selected 750 pilgrims to make the storied pilgrimage: five batches of 50 yatris will cross into Tibet via the Lipulekh pass in Uttarakhand, and ten batches of 50 pilgrims will travel the longer but relatively easier route via the Nathu La pass in Sikkim. The first waves of pilgrims on both routes are now on their way.

— Mount Kailash (Gang Rinpoche in Tibetan) stands 6,638 meters tall in the Ngari Prefecture of the Tibet Autonomous Region, at the border of India, Tibet, and Nepal. To its south, on the Tibetan plateau, are two lakes: Manasarovar (Mapam Yumtso), a freshwater lake, and Rakshastal, a saltwater lake.

— Both the lakes and the tall mountain in the background hold significance in Hindu, Buddhist, Jain, and Tibetan Bon traditions.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

Which of the following states witnessed a dip in the number of tuberculosis (TB) deaths in the state after the rollout of the TB death-free initiative in 2022?

(a) Madhya Pradesh

(b) Himachal Pradesh

(c) Tamil Nadu

(d) Punjab

Explanation

— Tamil Nadu has shown a decrease in tuberculosis (TB) mortality with the implementation of the Tamil Nadu Kasanoi Erappila Thittam (TN-KET), or TB death-free project, in 2022.

— According to an article published in the Indian Journal of Community Medicine, the program resulted in a reduction in the number of tuberculosis fatalities in three districts: Dharmapuri, Karur, and Villupuram between 2022 and 2023. The tuberculosis death rate in Dharmapuri decreased from 12.5% to 7.8%, in Karur from 7.1% to 5.3%, and in Villupuram from 6.1% to 5.2%.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

With reference to the Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZ), consider the following statements:

1. ESZs are defined in the Biodiversity Act, 2002.

2. These are the areas that have unique environmental resources that require special attention for their conservation.

3. The idea of Eco-Sensitive Zones was mooted during the Wildlife Conservation Strategy, 2002.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— The standing committee of the National Board for Wildlife (SC-NBWL), has decided to revisit the government’s 2011 guidelines on declaration of eco-sensitive zones (ESZ) around national parks and wildlife sanctuaries to make them more site-specific and tuned to ecological and socio-economic realities of each region.

About ESZs

— The National Environment Policy (2006) defines Eco-Sensitive Zones as “areas with unique environmental resources that require special attention for their conservation” because they feature landscape, wildlife, biodiversity, historical, and scenic qualities. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.

— The concept of Eco-Sensitive Zones was proposed at the XXI meeting of the Indian Board for Wildlife on January 21, 2002, when the Wildlife Conservation Strategy, 2002, was approved. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: moef.gov.in)

QUESTION 10

Consider the following statements with reference to Ginni Index 2025:

1. It is released by the World Economic Forum and it measures the extent to which the distribution of income or consumption among individuals or households within an economy deviates from a perfectly equal distribution.

2. It has placed India in the fourth position making it more equal than every G7 and G20 country, many of which are considered advanced economies.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— Gini Index India rank 2025: India has emerged not only as the world’s fourth-largest economy, but also as one of the “most equal countries” globally, according to a new World Bank report that places the country just behind the Slovak Republic, Slovenia, and Belarus.

— The term “most equal country” describes a nation where income and consumption are distributed more evenly among its population.

— The Gini Index, a report by the World Bank, has placed India in the fourth position with a score of 25.5, much lower than countries like China (35.7), the USA (41.8), and the United Kingdom (34.4). It is also more equal than every G7 and G20 country, many of which are considered advanced economies.

— Out of the 167 countries for which the World Bank has released data, India falls into the “moderately low” inequality category and is just a fraction away from joining the “low inequality” group, which includes countries like the Slovak Republic (24.1), Slovenia (24.3), and Belarus (24.4).

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 11

With reference to The Admiralty (Jurisdiction and Settlement of Maritime Claims) Act, 2017, consider the following statements:

1. Under the Act, admiralty suits can be filed for maritime claims such as damage to ships, ownership and agreement disputes, loss of life, wage issues but excludes environmental damage and impact on marine life .

2. The law gives jurisdiction only to the High Courts of Bombay, Calcutta, Madras, Kerala, Karnataka, Odisha, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh over maritime disputes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— The Kerala High Court on Monday ordered the conditional “arrest” of Liberian container ship MSC Akiteta II, currently anchored at Thiruvananthapuram’s Vizhinjam port, over compensation claims arising from the sinking of the MSC Elsa III in May.

— The order came after the Kerala government filed an admiralty suit — a legal proceeding pertaining to maritime law and disputes — in the High Court. The suit is named the Mediterranean Shipping Company, one of whose firms operates and manages the MSC Akiteta II. Another company of the same group operated the MSC Elsa III.

— The Admiralty (Jurisdiction and Settlement of Maritime Claims) Act, 2017 governs maritime disputes in India. Under the Act, admiralty suits can be filed for maritime claims such as damage to ships, ownership and agreement disputes, loss of life, wage issues, and environmental damage.

— The 2017 law replaced the colonial-era Admiralty Court Act, 1861, and Colonial Courts of Admiralty Act, 1890.

— The previous laws gave jurisdiction only to the High Courts of Bombay, Calcutta and Madras, as these were the only major ports in India earlier. Now, the HCs of Kerala, Karnataka, Odisha, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh also have jurisdiction over maritime disputes.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 12

The ‘Han Guang’ drills were recently seen in the news with reference to which of the following countries mentioned below?

(a) North Korea

(b) Mongolia

(c) Thailand

(d) None of the above

Explanation

Taiwan’s ‘biggest-ever’ military exercises

— The Han Guang drills “began with exercises to counter the actions of Chinese Coast Guard and maritime militia ships that have been harassing Taiwanese ships around offshore island groups close to the Chinese coast”, the Taiwanese Defence Ministry said.

— Regular forces will be backed up by 22,000 reservists and “realistic conditions” will be simulated.

— According to the Associated Press, this could be “a possible attempt to counter criticisms that past exercises have veered on the performative”.

— The Chinese government criticised Taiwan’s ruling Democratic Progressive Party (DPP), saying the drills could not stand in the way of the “historical trend of national reunification”.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 13

With reference to Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanisms (CBAM), consider the following statements:

1. It is an import duty that is imposed by the US on goods produced in other countries by processes that lead to greater carbon emissions than domestic US manufacturers are allowed to emit.

2. BRICS nations have “condemned and rejected” this mechanism and similar restrictive trade measures, saying they undermine their transition to a cleaner economy.

Which of the statements given above is/are true?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— BRICS nations have “condemned and rejected” the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanisms (CBAM) of the European Union (EU) and similar restrictive trade measures, saying they undermine their transition to a cleaner economy.

— CBAM is an import duty that is imposed by Europe on goods produced in other countries by processes that lead to greater carbon emissions than domestic European manufacturers are allowed to emit.

— The ostensible purpose is to check “carbon leakage”, but this has the effect of making items like steel or cement manufactured in countries like India more expensive, and thus less competitive, in European markets.

— Developing countries including India and China have been strongly critical of CBAM, and called it a unilateral and unfair trade barrier. They have said CBAM violates international agreements on both trade and climate, and have raised this issue at multiple international forums, including the annual climate conferences. But the EU has refused to relent.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 14

Consider the following statements with reference to the ‘buck’ moon:

Statement 1: This moon usually appears brighter than usual and lower in the sky.

Statement 2: This phenomenon occurs due to its proximity to the summer solstice, when Earth’s axial tilt causes one of the poles to lean most directly toward the Sun.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are true, and 2 is the correct explanation of 1.

(b) Both statements 1 and 2 are true, but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1 .

(c) Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false.

(d) Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is true

Explanation

— One of the most anticipated events this month is the first full moon, also known as the buck moon. The moon is set to appear in all its glory in the night sky on Thursday, July 10.

What is a buck moon?

— The buck moon represents the first full moon of July each year. This moon usually appears brighter than usual and lower than usual. This is due to its proximity to the summer solstice, a biennial event where one of Earth’s poles is tilted toward the Sun at its most extreme angle. The summer solstice causes the Sun to be at its highest position in the daytime sky, causing the moon to take its lowest path in the night sky.

— The July buck moon is also frequently on the same day as Guru Purnima, the festival celebrating teachers and wisdom.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 15

Campbell Bay was in the news. It is part of:

(a) Tamil Nadu

(b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

(c) Lakshadweep

(d) Gujarat

Explanation

— The Indian Coast Guard rescued two crew members when a US yacht experienced complete propulsion failure off the coast of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

— When they arrived, the yacht’s sail had been blown off and the propeller was twisted in ropes. The Sea Angel was towed safely to Campbell Bay.

— Campbell Bay is located on the island of Great Nicobar.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Previous Weekly Quiz

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | June 28 to July 05, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | June 22 to June 28, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | June 15 to June 21, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | June 08 to June 14, 2025

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | June 01 to June 07, 2025

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